Under what circumstances, if any, should circumcision be lawful without the consent of the individual concerned?
This has been the subject of an interesting court case in Germany recently, and seems to have become a political issue as a result:
http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/world-europe-18909640
In relation to the above, should any distinction be made between male and female circumcision? If so, why?
I am not particularly well informed on this issue and would prefer to see what everyone else has to say before I post any of my own thoughts.


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